Well, SCOTUS has granted a case to be heard in its austere hall regarding the issue of gay marriage. Everyone will, of course, be watching and who knows what will happen come June or so.
But what led us here?
Some say the normalization of homosexuality in culture has led to the decline of the family and awful fatherhood statistics, etc. Some say the two simply dance a tango, with the decline and the rise happening without causal relations with one another but certainly with accompaniment.
But I'm offering another explanation. I'm willing to be wrong here, but I'm not sure I am.
What if the decline of marital fidelity and nuclear families is what has given rise to the normalization of homosexuality? Sociologically, I think the argument can be made - though because I'm not a sociologist I won't attempt it. Theologically, it seems that Romans 1 teaches this. Homosexuality is not the curse of God's judgment against a people in itself. It is a sign that the restraining moral influence has already been removed - the kind of passive judgment (if there is such a thing) that Romans 1 describes.
Maybe, just maybe, we have a lot more blame that is ours than we have thought before.
But that's just me thinking thoughts...